IDEAS HAVE CONSEQUENCES
Richard Weaver
1948
Discussion Questions:
1. Does Weaver present a cogent argument for his position that it was Nominalism (a denial of transcendentals), as upheld by William of Occam, which changed the course of Western culture?
2. Is the term 'materialism' used correctly (i.e. the complete denial of anything other than the material world) or does it usually imply an inordinate values system?
3. Even if we agree with Weaver's analysis of what ails Western culture, do we agree with his prognosis and prescription?
4. Is the middle class really the villain of the piece?